17

Ahh.. Been busy over the weekend. Still studying transformation of double integrals to polar forrm.. Maths is a tough subject. Haha but i mastered partial fractions in a day yesterday. Really not much to it.

And i guess i should talk a lttle bit about it. I'm Seventeen!! But whats so special about being seventeen anyway? You still can't drink. Can't drive. Can't watch porno movies. So i guesss theress really nothing special about being 17. Except that its a prime numberXD Sorry i'm number sensitive.

So my cousins and a few friends came over to HQ on Friday to wish me happy birthday. I guess i should thank them for coming but Soomin kept snatching my blackboard and thus preveented me from doing maths with darren-the only person who has the intelligence and patience to do tians mathematics. And seriously whats up with the chocalate gift? I hate chocalate. Its totally insincere
and a waste of your money. (unless you're a pretty girl of course:D) I would have liked a maths book sooooo much better. But still, thanks everyone for visiting. I promise i'll treat you guys to kbox when i'm well.

And thanks to zuan cong for getting me the FIR album(see this is what you call a Real gift.) Its really nice.

Well whats a post in joeymath without math?

Today we will prove that there are an infinite number of primes.

But first you will have to know that every integer can be broken down into a product of primes, or it is itself prime. For eg. 15=3x5 This is called the fundamental theorem of arithmetic.

Okay we are ready for the proof.

imagine that there are a finite number of primes.

The product of all primes would be
(p1 x p2 x p3 x p4...........x pn) where p1 is the firsst prime and pn is the last.
we add one one this number and call the new number S

the new number S is an integer, and it is not a prime nnumber since the last prime was pn. Thus, by the fundamental theorem of arithmetic, it must be divisible by one prime.

S=(p1 x p2 x p3 x p4...........x pn)+1
But we realize that S is not divisible by any primes from p1 to pn since it will always give a remainder of 1. And we have a contradiction. Thus our original assuption that there are a finite number of primes must be false=There are an infite number of primes.

I love mathsXD